Suppose f1 and f2 are non – zero one – one functions from R to R. Is f1f2necessarily one – one? Justify your answer. Here,f1f2: R→R is given byf1f2(x)=f1(x)f2(x) for all x ∈ R

Suppose f1 and f2 are non – zero one – one functions from R to R. Is $\frac{f 1}{f 2}$ necessarily one – one? Justify your answer. Here, $\frac{f 1}{f 2} : R \to R$ is given by $\frac{f 1}{f 2} (x) = \frac{f 1 (x)}{f 2 (x)}$ for all x ∈ R

Mixed-up sentence exercise

Put the parts in order to form a sentence. When you think your answer is correct, click on "Check" to check your answer. If you get stuck, click on "Hint" to find out the next correct part.